Time: Mon Apr 14 11:56:09 1997
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Date: Mon, 14 Apr 1997 11:49:25 -0700
To: liberty-and-justice@pobox.com
From: Paul Andrew Mitchell [address in tool bar]
Subject: SLS: L&J: Tax Liability

I don't particularly want, or need, to 
engage in yet another endless debate
about the construction, intent, and
case law surrounding this or that
section of the IRC.  The debate raging
about same is proof enough to me that
the entire Code is void for vagueness,
as a body of law with a fraudulent intent,
down to its core.

Do you stop for green and go for red
in your town?  Now, there is a law that
is NOT void for vagueness.  It is just,
and it is easily understood, even by
color-blind people (who decide by the
position of the light which is on).

You are not an "employee" if you work
for someone else, or if you work for
yourself.  "Employees" are people who
are subject to the Public Salary Tax Act
of 1939, as amended.  Congress used a
special definition, so that people who
declare themselves "employees" can be
treated AS IF they are subject to said Act.

This is one of the core features of the
deception which FDR introduced.  

Signing a W-4 "EMPLOYEE'S" withholding 
allowance certificate creates the rebuttable
presumption that you knew what you were
doing, i.e. declaring yourself to be
an public "employee" as that term is defined
in the Public Salary Tax Act.

Congress does not have any authority to
legislate taxes upon private compensation,
not without apportioning such a direct
tax, not within the state zone, and not
without a voluntary election to treat oneself
as a "taxpayer."  The tax is voluntary;
this has already been demonstrated, many
times over.  See state of Dwight Avis in 1953,
for example.

As for myself, I regard the Public Salary
Tax Act as unconstitutional for being
fraudulent by intent.  The money collected
is skimmed off the top of federal paychecks,
and paid to foreign banks, under the ruse
of collecting taxes to support government
services.  Why not exempt public employees
from income taxes altogether, and advertise the 
"real" amount which the "employer" actually does 
end up "paying" them, after all their withholdings 
are  withheld?  Too simple, really, especially
for Congress to understand.

/s/ Paul Mitchell
http://www.supremelaw.com



At 11:22 AM 4/14/97 -0400, you wrote:
>Paul Mitchell sez:
>
>"And the 'employee' they are talking about here  [Section 402(d)(1)(D)
>under subtitle A] is a worker who has executed a valid Form W-4...  If
>you haven't executed a valid W-4, you aren't really an "employee" as
>that term is utilized here."
>
>However, the fact that the W-4 that an individual signed is invalid has
>to be proved by the "employee" making that claim.  The IRS and
>employers will assume the W-4 is valid unless you can prove
>otherwise.   This is one of the problems with stopping withholding.
>The other problem is trying to educate a bunch of payroll and/or
>personnel people who are just as scared of the IRS as everybody else.
>
>-- Lynda
>
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Paul Andrew, Mitchell, B.A., M.S.    : Counselor at Law, federal witness
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