Re: Does our government still represent and serve State Citizens???


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Posted by MARTIN on September 05, 1998 at 02:31:47:

In Reply to: Does our government still represent and serve State Citizens??? posted by Paul Andrew Mitchell, B.A., M.S. on September 04, 1998 at 22:08:08:

Which Texas and which union should be specified.
#1)The Texas; that was an independent republic.
#2)The state of Texas; that by the joint resolution of congress of the 29th day of December, 1845, was admitted into the union on an equal footing with the original states in all respects whatever.
#3) STATE OF TEXAS: A political subdivision (legal fiction) of the federal government created after the 1861-65 war.
#4) The Republic of Texas case, with : Richard McLaren as a party. The COURT has no jurisdiction to remove the STATE OF TEXAS from the UNION because the COURT has no military to enforce the COURTS decision against the executive branch which conquered the state of Texas. A political power matter.
We must specifically specify which union or UNION.
#1)The "union" created under the "We the People" constitution.
#1a)Union : proper English grammar as used in the "We the People" constitution for example.
#2)The soviet type legal fiction in commerce "UNION" created after the state of Texas was conquered after it lawfully succeeded from the "We the People" union.
#2a) UNION: all uppercase spelling not grammatically defined in any English or modern ENGLISH dictionary . A misnomer, name of war, LEGAL GRAMMAR used by imperial power agencies in NAMES, TITLES and so forth. Not used in the text of written code and regulation. ROMANS USED TO SPELL THIS WAY!
Why don't you teach a course on lawyer and legislative writing tricks and legal style?


: The Republic of Texas case, with
: Richard McLaren as a party.

: (I may have misspelled his last name.)

: He was claiming that Texas was not
: a member of the Union.

:
: /s/ Paul Andrew Mitchell




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